Guaranteed Success in AppSec Practitioner CAP Exam Dumps
The SecOps Group CAP Daily Practice Exam New 2026 Updated 60 Questions
How much CAP Exam Cost
The price of the exam is 419 USD.
Exam Difficulty
When preparing for the CAP certification exam, the real world experience is required to stand a reasonable chance of passing the CAP exam. ISC recommended study material does not replace the requirement for experience. So, It is very difficult for the candidate to pass the CAP exam without experience.
NEW QUESTION # 19
What is the full form of SAML?
- A. Security Assertion Management Language
- B. Secure Authentication Markup Language
- C. Security Assertion Markup Language
- D. Security Authorization Markup Language
Answer: C
Explanation:
SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is an open standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties, particularly in the context of single sign-on (SSO). It is based on XML and is widely used to enable secure web-based authentication and authorization across different domains. The correct full form isSecurity Assertion Markup Language, where "Assertion" refers to statements about a subject (e.g., identity, attributes), "Markup" indicates the XML-based structure, and "Language" denotes the defined syntax.
* Option A ("Security Assertion Markup Language"): This is the correct and official full form of SAML as defined by OASIS (Organization for the Advancement of Structured Information Standards).
* Option B ("Security Authorization Markup Language"): Incorrect, as "Authorization" is not part of the acronym; SAML focuses on both authentication and authorization assertions.
* Option C ("Security Assertion Management Language"): Incorrect, as "Management" is not part of the acronym; SAML is about markup, not management.
* Option D ("Secure Authentication Markup Language"): Incorrect, as "Secure" is not part of the acronym, and SAML covers more than just authentication.
The correct answer is A, aligning with the CAP syllabus under "Authentication and Authorization" and
"Single Sign-On (SSO) Standards."References: SecOps Group CAP Documents - "SAML Overview,"
"Authentication Protocols," and "OWASP Identity Management" sections.
NEW QUESTION # 20
FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a methodology for assessing the security of information systems. Which of the following FITSAF levels shows that the procedures and controls have been implemented?
- A. Level 5
- B. Level 3
- C. Level 1
- D. Level 4
- E. Level 2
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 21
For which of the following reporting requirements are continuous monitoring documentation reports used?
- A. NIST
- B. FISMA
- C. HIPAA
- D. FBI
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which of the following is used to indicate that the software has met a defined quality level and is ready for mass distribution either by electronic means or by physical media?
- A. DAA
- B. ATM
- C. RTM
- D. CRO
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following roles is used to ensure that the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the services are maintained to the levels approved on the Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
- A. The Configuration Manager
- B. The IT Security Manager
- C. The Service Level Manager
- D. The Change Manager
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following are the tasks performed by the owner in the information classification schemes?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
- A. To review the classification assignments from time to time and make alterations as the business requirements alter.
- B. To make original determination to decide what level of classification the information requires, which is based on the business requirements for the safety of the data.
- C. To perform data restoration from the backups whenever required.
- D. To delegate the responsibility of the data safeguard duties to the custodian.
Answer: A,B,D
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a data owner?
- A. Ensuring that the necessary security controls are in place
- B. Approving access requests
- C. Maintaining and protecting data
- D. Delegating responsibility of the day-to-day maintenance of the data protection mechanisms to the data custodian
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 26
Jeff, a key stakeholder in your project, wants to know how the risk exposure for the risk events is calculated during quantitative risk analysis. He is worried about the risk exposure which is too low for the events surrounding his project requirements. How is the risk exposure calculated?
- A. The risk exposure of a risk event is determined by historical information.
- B. The probability of a risk event times the impact of a risk event determines the true risk exposure.
- C. The probability of a risk event plus the impact of a risk event determines the true risk expo sure.
- D. The probability and impact of a risk event are gauged based on research and in-depth analysis.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following documents were developed by NIST for conducting Certification & Accreditation (C&A)?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. NIST Special Publication 800-59
- B. NIST Special Publication 800-37
- C. NIST Special Publication 800-37A
- D. NIST Special Publication 800-53
- E. NIST Special Publication 800-53A
- F. NIST Special Publication 800-60
Answer: A,B,D,E,F
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
NEW QUESTION # 28
Neil works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. He is working with Tom, the COO of his company, on several risks within the project. Tom understands that through qualitative analysis Neil has identified many risks in the project. Tom's concern, however, is that the priority list of these risk events are sorted in "high- risk," "moderate-risk," and "low-risk" as conditions apply within the project. Tom wants to know that is there any other objective on which Neil can make the priority list for project risks. What will be Neil's reply to Tom?
- A. Risks may be listed by priority separately for schedule, cost, and performance
- B. Risks may be listed by the additional analysis and response
- C. Risk may be listed by the responses in the near-term
- D. Risks may be listed by categories
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 29
The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in Phase 3. What are the process activities of this phase?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Security operations
- B. Change management
- C. Continue to review and refine the SSAA
- D. System operations
- E. Maintenance of the SSAA
- F. Compliance validation
Answer: A,B,D,E,F
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following are included in Administrative Controls?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Developing policy
- B. Monitoring for intrusion
- C. Screening of personnel
- D. Conducting security-awareness training
- E. Implementing change control procedures
Answer: A,C,D,E
NEW QUESTION # 31
In the context of the CORS (Cross-origin resource sharing) misconfiguration, which of the following statements is true?
- A. CORS is exploitable if the value of the HTTP headers is Access-Control-Allow-Origin: * and the value of the Access-Control-Allow-Credentials header is irrelevant
- B. CORS is exploitable if the value of the HTTP headers are Access-Control-Allow-Origin: * and Access- Control-Allow-Credentials: true
- C. CORS is exploitable if the value of the HTTP headers are Access-Control-Allow-Origin: * and Access- Control-Allow-Credentials: false
- D. All of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
CORS (Cross-Origin Resource Sharing) is a mechanism that allows servers to specify which origins can access their resources, enhancing security for cross-origin requests. A common misconfiguration occurs with theAccess-Control-Allow-OriginandAccess-Control-Allow-Credentialsheaders. WhenAccess-Control- Allow-Originis set to * (wildcard, allowing all origins), it permits any domain to make requests. However, if Access-Control-Allow-Credentialsis set to true (allowing credentials like cookies or HTTP authentication), this creates a security risk. Browsers will block such requests because sending credentials with a wildcard origin violates CORS security policies, but an attacker could exploit this misconfiguration to trick a victim's browser into making unauthorized requests if other controls are absent.
Option A is correct because the combination of Access-Control-Allow-Origin: * and Access-Control-Allow- Credentials: true is exploitable, as it enables potential credential leakage or unauthorized access. Option B is incorrect because Access-Control-Allow-Credentials: false disables credential sending, reducing exploitability. Option C is incorrect because the value of Access-Control-Allow-Credentials is not irrelevant; it must be false with a wildcard origin to comply with security standards. Option D ("All of the above") is incorrect as only A holds true. This is a key topic in the CAP syllabus under "CORS Misconfiguration" and
"Client-Side Security."References: SecOps Group CAP Documents - "CORS Configuration," "Security Misconfigurations," and "OWASP Secure Headers" sections.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following is used to indicate that the software has met a defined quality level and is ready for mass distribution either by electronic means or by physical media?
- A. DAA
- B. ATM
- C. RTM
- D. CRO
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
NEW QUESTION # 33
During qualitative risk analysis you want to define the risk urgency assessment. All of the following are indicators of risk priority except for which one?
- A. Risk rating
- B. Symptoms
- C. Cost of the project
- D. Warning signs
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 34
Scan the code below and identify the vulnerability which is the most applicable for this scenario.
<meta charset="utf-8">
<meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width, initial-scale=1, shrink-to-fit=no">
<meta name="description" content="xss">
<link rel="stylesheet" href="https://cdnjs.cloudflare.com/ajax/libs/twitter-bootstrap/4.1.1/css/bootstrap.min.
css" integrity="sha384-WskhaSGFgHYWDcbwN70/dfYBj47jz9qbsMId
/iRN3ewGhXQFZCSftd1LZCfmhktB" crossorigin="anonymous">
<link rel="shortcut icon" href="/favicon.ico">
<link charset="utf-8" media="all" type="text/css" href="/static/css/main.css" rel="stylesheet">
<script type="text/javascript" src="https://cdnjs.cloudflare.com/ajax/libs/jquery/3.3.1/jquery.min.js"></script>
- A. Component with a Known Vulnerability
- B. SQL Injection
- C. Type Juggling
- D. Server-Side Request Forgery
Answer: A
Explanation:
The code snippet shows HTML <meta> and <link> tags, along with a <script> tag, loading external resources:
* Bootstrap CSS from cdnjs.cloudflare.com (version 4.1.1)
* jQuery JavaScript from cdnjs.cloudflare.com (version 3.3.1)
Let's evaluate the potential vulnerabilities:
* The resources are loaded from a third-party CDN (cdnjs.cloudflare.com), and the versions specified (Bootstrap 4.1.1 and jQuery 3.3.1) may have known vulnerabilities. For instance, jQuery 3.3.1 has known XSS (Cross-Site Scripting) vulnerabilities (e.g., CVE-2019-11358) that can be exploited if the library is used insecurely. Similarly, Bootstrap 4.1.1 has known issues (e.g., CVE-2018-14041) related to XSS in certain components like tooltips or modals if not configured properly.
* The use of outdated or vulnerable third-party components is aComponent with a Known Vulnerability
, a common issue in web applications. The CAP syllabus emphasizes identifying and mitigating risks from third-party libraries, especially those with known CVEs.
* Option A ("SQL Injection"): SQL injection occurs in server-side database queries, not in client-side HTML or JavaScript loading. This code snippet does not involve database interaction, so this is incorrect.
* Option B ("Type Juggling"): Type juggling is a PHP-specific vulnerability where loose type comparison (== vs ===) leads to security issues. This code is HTML/JavaScript, not PHP, so type juggling does not apply.
* Option C ("Component with a Known Vulnerability"): As explained, the use of potentially outdated jQuery and Bootstrap versions introduces the risk of known vulnerabilities, making this the most applicable answer.
* Option D ("Server-Side Request Forgery"): SSRF involves tricking the server into making unauthorized requests, which is not relevant here as the code loads resources in the browser, not on the server.
The correct answer is C, aligning with the CAP syllabus under "Component Vulnerabilities" and "OWASP Top 10 (A09:2021 - Using Components with Known Vulnerabilities)."References: SecOps Group CAP Documents - "Third-Party Component Security," "Software Supply Chain Security," and "OWASP Top 10" sections.
NEW QUESTION # 35
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