Latest NAPLEX Study Guides 2022 - With Test Engine PDF
Get New NAPLEX Practice Test Questions Answers
Sample Questions
The following are examples of question types that examinees may encounter when taking the NAPLEX. These questions are presented as examples to familiarize examinees with their formats and are not intended to represent content areas on the NAPLEX. Every examinee is presented with the opportunity to take a tutorial at the testing center prior to initiating the NAPLEX. The tutorial instructs examinees on how to respond to all of the types of questions that could be presented on the examination. NABP strongly encourages each examinee to take the tutorial in order to become familiar with how to submit responses in the computer-based examination.
Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in immunocompromised patients?
- D. Subcutaneous influenza
- A. Pneumococcal polysaccharide
- C. Meningococcal conjugate
- B. Varicella
What counseling information should a pharmacist provide to a patient taking oral tacrolimus?
- C. If a dose is missed, double up on the next dose
- A. Avoid live virus vaccinations
- D. Do not drink alcohol while taking this medication
- B. Avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice
- E. Medication levels need to be monitored
Difficulty in taking the North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination
NAPLEX exam dumps can be a great way to prepare for NAPLEX exam. It is expected to be valid for the practice the kind of multiple questions that could be asked in your PSAT Reading certification exam. The NAPLEX practice test software is intuitive and simulates a real exam, familiarizing you with the real exam questions.
If you are a pharma graduate and are excited to get a license and polish your abilities and advance your credentials to further advance your career, then you must take the certification exam for North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination. NAPLEX practice exams can help you with this certifications.
NEW QUESTION 67
All of the following may increase triglycerides except:
- A. Fish oil
- B. Bile acid sequestrants
- C. Protease inhibitor
- D. Glucocorticoids
- E. Oral estrogens
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Agents that can cause elevated triglycerides: oral estrogens, glucocorticoids, bile acid sequestrants, protease inhibitors, retinoic acid, anabolic steroids, sirolimus, raloxifene, tamoxifen, beta blockers (not carvedilol), and thiazides.
NEW QUESTION 68
Which of the following statements is true regarding Drug-receptor bonds?
- A. Covalent bonds of drugs with receptors are strong and mostly reversible
- B. Hydrophobic bonds are weak bonds and they are important in the interactions of highly water soluble drugs with the lipids of cell membranes
- C. Bond formation of between the acetyl group of aspirin and cyclo-oxygenase enzyme is a covalent bond
- D. Covalent bonding is much more common than electrostatic bonding in drug-receptor interactions
- E. Electrostatic bonds are stronger than covalent bonds
Answer: C
Explanation:
Drugs mainly interact with the receptors by means of chemical forces or bonds. There are three major types of drug receptor bonds: - Covalent - Electrostatic - Hydrophobic Covalent bonds are very strong bonds and in most of the cases they are irreversible under biologic conditions. For example, the covalent bond between the acetyl group of aspirin and cyclo-oxygenase enzyme (target enzyme present on the platelets) does not breaks easily. The platelet aggregation effect of aspirin lasts long after free acetyl-salicylic acid has disappeared from the blood (about 15 minutes) and it is reversed only by the synthesis of new cyclo-oxygenase enzyme in new platelets which takes a long time. Hence the effect of aspirin is seen after the drug is stopped. Among the drug receptor interactions, electrostatic bond is much more commonly found than covalent bond. The electrostatic bonds vary from relatively strong linkages between permanently charged ionic molecules to weaker hydrogen bonds and very weak induced dipole interactions such as van der Waals force. The electrostatic bonds are weaker than covalent bonds. Hydrophobic bonds are usually very weak bonds and probably important in the interactions of highly lipid soluble drugs with the lipids of cell membranes and perhaps in the interactions of the drugs with the internal walls of receptor "pockets".
NEW QUESTION 69
A 54-year-old male with a long history of mild persistent asthma on daily fluticasone therapy has been using his albuterol inhaler every day for the past month, and presents requesting a refill. What changes should be made to his current regimen?
- A. Add cromolyn to current regimen
- B. Add ciclesonide to current regimen
- C. Add salmeterol to current regimen
- D. Discontinue fluticasone and add ipratropium to current regimen
- E. Discontinue fluticasone and instead use salmeterol
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Add salmeterol to the current regimen. This patient had mild persistent asthma but was using his albuterol daily, which indicates that a step up in therapy is warranted. The preferred first line treatment regimen for moderate persistent asthma are low to medium dose inhaled corticosteroids plus a long acting beta2 agonist, as well as a short acting beta2 agonist as needed. A is incorrect. Ciclesonide is an inhaled corticosteroid. The patient in the case is already using fluticasone, so adding ciclesonide would be therapeutic duplication. C is incorrect. Long-acting beta2 agonists should only be used as adjunctive therapy in patients who are currently receiving but not adequately controlled on an inhaled corticosteroid. These medications should not be used as monotherapy, due to an increased risk of asthma related deaths. D is incorrect. Cromolyn prevents the release of vasoactive mediators from mast cell and is primarily used for exercise-induced asthma, it is not indicated as an alternative agent in patients with moderate persistent asthma. E is incorrect. Ipratropium is a short-acting anticholinergic, which is often used in COPD or in asthma exacerbations. It is not indicated for maintenance treatment of moderate persistent asthma.
NEW QUESTION 70
Which of the following should be monitored when a patient is on SGLT2 inhibitor?
- A. Renal function
- B. All of the above
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Blood glucose
- E. Hydration status
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Because SGLT2 inhibitors work by preventing reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, this increases frequency of urination. All of the options are monitoring requirements since the hydration status, blood pressure, blood glucose, and renal function may all be changed from increased urination (from the mechanism of the drug).
NEW QUESTION 71
LN is 84 YOM who is in hospital for a back surgery. His height is 5 feet and 4 inches, weight 85 kg and NKDA.
His past medical history includes hypertension, diabetes mellitus, major depression, hypothyroidism and chronic back pain. Post-op day 1, LN's medication includes Dexamethasone 8mg iv q6h with taper dosing, Ondansetron 4mg iv q6h prn for N/V, Levothyroxine 0.075mg po daily, Lisinopril 10mg po daily, Citalopram
20mg po daily, Docusate sodium / Senna 1 tab po twice a day, Bisacodyl 10mg suppository daily prn for constipation, Famotidine 20mg iv q12hr, Metoclopramide 10mg iv q6h, Metformin 500mg po bid, D51/2NS with 20K at 125mls/hour and Hydromorphone PCA at 0.2mg/hour of basal rate, demand dose 0.1mg. lock-out every 6min, one hour limit 2.2mg/hour. Pertinent morning labs includes serum creatinine 1.4mg/dl, Mg 1.5mg/ dl, K 5.0mmol/L, Na 135mmol/L.
It is recommended to monitor complete blood count in patients on chronic metformin because of what reason?
- A. Metformin may decrease vitamin B12 levels
- B. Metformin may decrease platelet count
- C. Metformin may cause leukocytosis
- D. Metformin may decrease erythropoietin level
- E. Metformin may decrease iron absorption
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Metformin may impair the absorption of vitamin B12, especially in those with inadequate vitamin b12 or calcium intake/absorption. Vitamin b12 deficiency can be treated with discontinuation of therapy or supplementation. Vitamin b12 serum concentrations should be monitored periodically with long-term therapy.
NEW QUESTION 72
A 23-year-old female presents to your clinic complaining of intermittent throbbing headaches that usually last for several hours and are made worse by the presence of light. She endorses occasional nausea without vomiting during the most severe episodes. Physical examination is unrevealing, and she has no significant past medical history.
Which of the following treatments is considered an abortive therapy for this patient's underlying condition?
- A. Gabapentin
- B. Diltiazam
- C. Sumatriptan
- D. Amitriptyline
- E. Propranolol
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Migraine headaches typically affect females more often than males, and patients most frequently present in their early 20s. Classic symptoms of migraine include throbbing headaches lasting between 2-24 hours in duration, with triggers such as red wine, fasting, stress, and menses. Primary prevention is aimed at the identification and avoidance of triggers. Over the counter NSAIDS can be used if symptoms persist.
Failing this, PRN abortive therapy is indicated, including the triptans (e.g. - sumatriptan) and metoclopramide.
Choice B - Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant that is considered to be a second-line, prophylactic treatment for recurrent migraine headaches. Its utility is limited by its lengthy side effect profile. Choice C - Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, can also be utilized for migraine prophylaxis. However, it will not abort a migraine currently in progress, and extensive side effects limit its use. Choices D + E - Propranolol and diltiazam are beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers, respectively. As with the anticonvulsants and tricyclic antidepressants, these are considered migraine prophylaxis and will not interrupt a migraine once it has begun.
NEW QUESTION 73
LN is 84 YOM who is in hospital for a back surgery. His height is 5 feet and 4 inches, weight 85 kg and NKDA.
His past medical history includes hypertension, diabetes mellitus, major depression, hypothyroidism and chronic back pain. Post-op day 1, LN's medication includes Dexamethasone 8mg iv q6h with taper dosing, Ondansetron 4mg iv q6h prn for N/V, Levothyroxine 0.075mg po daily, Lisinopril 10mg po daily, Citalopram
20mg po daily, Docusate sodium / Senna 1 tab po twice a day, Bisacodyl 10mg suppository daily prn for constipation, Famotidine 20mg iv q12hr, Metoclopramide 10mg iv q6h, Metformin 500mg po bid, D51/2NS with 20K at 125mls/hour and Hydromorphone PCA at 0.2mg/hour of basal rate, demand dose 0.1mg. lock-out every 6min, one hour limit 2.2mg/hour. Pertinent morning labs includes serum creatinine 1.4mg/dl, Mg 1.5mg/ dl, K 5.0mmol/L, Na 135mmol/L.
What is LN's creatinine clearance using Cockcroft and Gault equation based on IBW?
- A. 63 mls/min
- B. 53 mls/min
- C. 43 mls/min
- D. 33 mls/min
- E. 23 mls/min
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
ABW = 85 kg IBW = 50 kg + 2.3 kg (4) = 59.2 kg 85/59.2 = 1.44 AdjBW = 59.2 kg + 0.4(85 kg-59.2 kg) =
69.52
kg CrCl (IBW) = [(140-84) 59.2]/(72 * 1.4) = 32.8 CrCl (AdjBW) = [(140-84) 69.52]/(72 * 1.4) = 38.6
NEW QUESTION 74
LN is 84 YOM who is in hospital for a back surgery. His height is 5 feet and 4 inches, weight 85 kg and NKDA.
His past medical history includes hypertension, diabetes mellitus, major depression, hypothyroidism and chronic back pain. Post-op day 1, LN's medication includes Dexamethasone 8mg iv q6h with taper dosing, Ondansetron 4mg iv q6h prn for N/V, Levothyroxine 0.075mg po daily, Lisinopril 10mg po daily, Citalopram
20mg po daily, Docusate sodium / Senna 1 tab po twice a day, Bisacodyl 10mg suppository daily prn for constipation, Famotidine 20mg iv q12hr, Metoclopramide 10mg iv q6h, Metformin 500mg po bid, D51/2NS with
20K at 125mls/hour and Hydromorphone PCA at 0.2mg/hour of basal rate, demand dose 0.1mg. lock-out every
6min, one hour limit 2.2mg/hour. Pertinent morning labs includes serum creatinine 1.4mg/dl, Mg 1.5mg/dl, K
5.0mmol/L, Na 135mmol/L.
Which of the following medication's dose are adjusted for poor renal function?
- A. Citalopram
- B. Ondansetron
- C. Metoclopramide
- D. Lisinopril
- E. Famotidine
Answer: C
Explanation:
Famotidine and Metoclopramide would need to be adjusted for poor renal function. Since his CrCl is less than
50, famotidine would need to be adjusted by decreasing the dose by 50% or increasing the interval to every 36 to 48 hours. Metoclopramide would also need to be adjusted by 50% of the normal dose since his CrCl is less than 40. ACEInhibitors and ARBs should be held if serum K is greater than 5.6 or there is a rise in serum creatinine greater than 30% after initiation.
NEW QUESTION 75
A 67-year-old female presents to your clinic complaining of fatigue, diarrhea, headaches and a loss of appetite.
Upon examination you find that she is having some cognitive difficulty. Laboratory results reveal: MCV: 109fL; Hgb: 9g/dL; MMA and homocystine are both elevated. Shilling test is positive.
What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
- A. Give corticosteroids and iron supplementation
- B. Lifelong Vitamin B12 supplementation
- C. Iron supplementation for 4-6 months
- D. Lifelong folic acid supplementation
- E. Obtain a Coomb's test
Answer: B
Explanation:
Lifelong Vitamin B12 supplementation. Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) deficiency generally presents in patients as fatigue, diarrhea and headaches but can also be the cause of cognitive changes (difficulty concentrating, even mild dementia). Pernicious anemia is a macrocytic anemia, therefore laboratory findings indicate an increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV), with a decreased hemoglobin. A positive Schilling test indicates that the B12 deficiency is due to a lack of intrinsic factor. Lifelong cyanocobalamin supplementation (either orally or via injections) is needed to treat pernicious anemia. A is incorrect. Folic acid deficiency anemia is another common type of macrocytic anemia. However, cognitive deficits are not typically seen with folic acid deficiency. Furthermore, a schilling test would be negative and the methylmalonic acid (MMA) would be normal, rather than elevated. C is incorrect. Iron deficiency anemia causes a microcytic anemia, characterized by a decreased MCV. D is incorrect. A Coomb's test is used to detect autoimmune hemolysis that may be suspected in patients with normocytic anemia (anemia with an MCV in the normal range). E is incorrect.
Corticosteroids and iron supplementation are indicated as treatment in hemolytic anemia.
NEW QUESTION 76
A Physician orders Dobutamine HCl IV infusion at 5 mcg/kg/min. Dobutamine HCl is available as 500 mg in
250 mL of D5W. The patient weighs 68 kg. Calculate the infusion rate in mL/hr.
- A. 22.4mls/hr
- B. 0.17mls/hr
- C. 340mls/hr
- D. 5.2mls/hr
- E. 10.2mls/hr
Answer: E
Explanation:
68 kg × [5 mcg/kg/min] = 340 mcg/min Bag concentration = 2 mg/ml or 2000 mcg/ml 340 mcg × [1 mL/2000 mcg] = 0.17 mL/min 60 in × [0.17 mL/min] = 10.2 mLs in one hour
NEW QUESTION 77
In the US Nurses' Health Study (NHS) cohort study, where they looked at association of regular aspirin use (two 325 mg tablets/week) and colorectal cancer in 82,911 women found (RR, 0.77; 95% CI, 0.67-0.88) over
20 years of follow-up.
In an another analysis of the NHS, regular aspirin use, investigator also found (hazard ratio [HR]=0.72, 95% CI 0.56-0.92), what does this say about the mortality from colorectal cancer? How can this data best be interpreted?
- A. Those who takes aspirin 2 times/week have 23% reduction in death from colorectal cancer
- B. Those who takes aspirin 2 times/week have 23% lower risk of colorectal cancer
- C. Those who takes aspirin 2 times/week have 28% lower risk of colorectal cancer
- D. Those who takes aspirin 2 times/week have 0.77% lower risk of colorectal cancer
- E. None of the above is correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Relative risk can be stated as 0.77 times as likely or 0.77 times the risk, but it could also be illustrated as a relative risk reduction and stated as a 23% risk reduction or 23% lower risk by taking the medication.
NEW QUESTION 78
All of the following may increase triglycerides except:
- A. Fish oil
- B. Bile acid sequestrants
- C. Protease inhibitor
- D. Glucocorticoids
- E. Oral estrogens
Answer: A
Explanation:
Agents that can cause elevated triglycerides: oral estrogens, glucocorticoids, bile acid sequestrants, protease inhibitors, retinoic acid, anabolic steroids, sirolimus, raloxifene, tamoxifen, beta blockers (not carvedilol), and thiazides.
NEW QUESTION 79
What is the active ingredient of the medicine Lyrica?
- A. Digoxin
- B. Pregabalin
- C. Valproate
- D. Tramadol
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Pregabalin is the active ingredient of the medicine Lyrica; a drug used to treat epilepsy, neuropathic pain, fibromyalgia and generalized anxiety disorder (GAD).
NEW QUESTION 80
JT is a 58-year-old women who is on vancomycin empirically for pyomyositis confirmed by MRI. Surgical debridement has successfully removed infected tissue and pus. C&S of the infected tissue comes back MSSA sensitive to everything on the panel. JT is allergic to PCN (rash), she has had cephalosporin for her UTI in the past with no problem.
What would be the most appropriate antibiotics to switch to while JT is still in the hospital?
- A. Daptomycin
- B. Oxacillin
- C. Ceftaroline
- D. Cefazolin
- E. Doxycycline
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Cefazolin or an antistaphylococcal penicillin (oxacillin or nafcillin) is recommended for this patient because the C&S results indicate MSSA. Since the patient develops a rash to penicillins, it would be acceptable to use cefazolin in this case.
NEW QUESTION 81
LN is 84 YOM who is in hospital for a back surgery. His height is 5 feet and 4 inches, weight 85 kg and NKDA. His past medical history includes hypertension, diabetes mellitus, major depression, hypothyroidism and chronic back pain.
Post-op day 1, LN's medication includes Dexamethasone 8 mg iv q6h with taper dosing, Ondansetron 4 mg iv q6h prn for N/V, Levothyroxine 0.075 mg po daily, Lisinopril 10 mg po daily, Citalopram 20 mg po daily, Docusate sodium / Senna 1 tab po twice a day, Bisacodyl 10 mg suppository daily prn for constipation, Famotidine 20 mg iv q12hr, Metoclopramide 10 mg iv q6h, Metformin 500 mg po bid, D51/2NS with 20 K at
125 mls/hour and Hydromorphone PCA at 0.2 mg/hour of basal rate, demand dose 0.1 mg. lock-out every 6 min, one hour limit 2.2 mg/hour. Pertinent morning labs includes serum creatinine 1.4 mg/dl, Mg 1.5 mg/dl, K
5.0 mmol/L, Na 135 mmol/L.
Which of the following medication may cause tardive dyskinesia when given at a higher dose and for a long duration?
- A. Metoclopramide
- B. Hydromorphone
- C. Lisinopril
- D. Famotidine
- E. Dexamethasone
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Metoclopramide may cause tardive dyskinesia when given at a higher dose and for a long duration of time of more than 3 months. Tardive dyskinesia is also listed as a Boxed Warning for metoclopramide. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious movement disorder that is irreversible. The risk increases with duration of treatment and the total cumulative dose. If signs or symptoms of tardive dyskinesia develop, then metoclopramide should be discontinued. There is currently no known treatment for it, but symptoms can lessen or resolve after metoclopramide is stopped. Treatment should not be more than 12 weeks unless the benefits outweigh the risks of developing tardive dyskinesia.
NEW QUESTION 82
Which of the following class of antidiabetic medication may cause fluid retention?
- A. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor
- B. SGLT2 Inhibitor
- C. GLP-1 agonist
- D. Bile acid sequestrant
- E. Thiazolidinediones
Answer: E
Explanation:
Explanation
Thiazolidinediones may cause fluid retention through proposed mechanism of increasing reabsorption in the collecting duct of the kidney and increasing vascular permeability in adipose tissue. Bile acid sequestrants work in the intestine to bind bile acids which doesn't affect fluid retention. GLP-1 receptor agonists work to activate these receptors to secrete insulin from beta pancreatic cells/decrease glucagon secretion/ increase satiety and doesn't affect fluid retention. SGLT2 inhibitors actually cause increase of fluid elimination through the kidneys. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors work in the gut to decrease carb absorption/digestion and have no affect on fluid retention.
NEW QUESTION 83
What is the weight of 1000 ml of serum protein whose specific gravity is 1.27?
- A. 1270 gm
- B. 12.7gm
- C. 127mg
- D. 1.27gm
- E. 12.7mg
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
SG= weight/mL, 1.27 = x/1000ml, x = 1270gm
NEW QUESTION 84
A patient takes 1gm of Calcium Carbonate salt three times a day. How much elemental calcium, in grams, is he getting in 24hrs? (MW of Ca: 40.078 g/mol, MW of CaCO3: 100.087 g/mol)
- A. 3 g
- B. 1.8g
- C. 1.8mg
- D. 0.8gm
- E. 1.2g
Answer: E
Explanation:
Calcium makes up 40% of the MW of CaCO3. MW Ca / MW CaCO3 40.078 / 100.087 × 100% = 40%. 40% of 1 g CaCO3 = 0.4 g. Patient is taking 0.4 g of Ca 3 times daily. 0.4 g Ca × 3 = 1.2 g of Elemental Ca.
NEW QUESTION 85
A 67-year-old female presents to your clinic complaining of fatigue, diarrhea, headaches and a loss of appetite.
Upon examination you find that she is having some cognitive difficulty. Laboratory results reveal: MCV:
109fL; Hgb: 9g/dL; MMA and homocystine are both elevated. Shilling test is positive.
What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
- A. Give corticosteroids and iron supplementation
- B. Lifelong Vitamin B12 supplementation
- C. Iron supplementation for 4-6 months
- D. Lifelong folic acid supplementation
- E. Obtain a Coomb's test
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Lifelong Vitamin B12 supplementation. Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) deficiency generally presents in patients as fatigue, diarrhea and headaches but can also be the cause of cognitive changes (difficulty concentrating, even mild dementia). Pernicious anemia is a macrocytic anemia, therefore laboratory findings indicate an increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV), with a decreased hemoglobin. A positive Schilling test indicates that the B12 deficiency is due to a lack of intrinsic factor. Lifelong cyanocobalamin supplementation (either orally or via injections) is needed to treat pernicious anemia. A is incorrect. Folic acid deficiency anemia is another common type of macrocytic anemia. However, cognitive deficits are not typically seen with folic acid deficiency. Furthermore, a schilling test would be negative and the methylmalonic acid (MMA) would be normal, rather than elevated. C is incorrect. Iron deficiency anemia causes a microcytic anemia, characterized by a decreased MCV. D is incorrect. A Coomb's test is used to detect autoimmune hemolysis that may be suspected in patients with normocytic anemia (anemia with an MCV in the normal range). E is incorrect. Corticosteroids and iron supplementation are indicated as treatment in hemolytic anemia.
NEW QUESTION 86
Which of the following is/are ordinal data?
- A. Alive or Dead
- B. Grade of breast cancer
- C. Sex
- D. Improvement Yes/No
- E. NYHA I-IV
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Categorical data includes ordinal (ordered categories) and nominal (unordered categories). NYHA I-IV and grade of breast cancer are considered ordinal data because the categories for the answer choice are in order, you can have NYHA class I, II, III, or IV. Grade of breast cancers are also in order, grade 1, 2, or 3. Sex, Improvemnet Yes/No, Alive or Dead is considered nominal, unordered data because the answer choices are female or male, and do not have a set order.
Reference:
http://www.bmj.com/about-bmj/resources-readers/publications/statistics-square-one
NEW QUESTION 87
How many millimoles of sodium are in 0.9% sodium chloride?
- A. 154 millimoles
- B. 90 millimoles
- C. 99 millimoles
- D. 145 millimoles
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
0.9% = 9 grams per every 1,000mL Molecular weight of NaCl = 58.5 9 / 58.5 = 0.154 moles 0.154 moles is the same as 154 millimoles There are 154 millimoles of sodium ions and 154 millimoles of chloride ions in
0.9% sodium chloride.
NEW QUESTION 88
A CD4 count of 180 cells per cubic meter may be evaluated as which of these?
- A. High
- B. Very low
- C. Low
- D. Severely high
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A CD4 count of 180 cells per cubic meter is considered very low - typically an indicator that the patient has an immunocompromised state, such as AIDS. CD4 counts are a measure of healthy T-cell levels. The lower the count, the more susceptible the patient is to opportunistic infections. A normal range is between 500 and 1,500 cells.
NEW QUESTION 89
Your patient, a 25-year-old G1P0 female at 26 weeks gestation presents due to an abnormal glucose tolerance test. One week prior, she was given 50 g of oral glucose and demonstrate a venous plasma glucose level of
156 mg/dL one hour later.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step of management?
- A. Administer an oral, 3-hour 100 g glucose dose
- B. Advise the patient to follow an American Diabetic Association diet plan
- C. Begin insulin treatment
- D. Repeat the 50 g oral glucose challenge
- E. Order a fetal ultrasound examination
Answer: A
Explanation:
Gestational diabetes is typically asymptomatic but identified via a 1-hour 50g oral glucose challenge administered at 24-28 weeks of gestation. A venous plasma glucose blood level of > 140 mg/dL is suggestive, and must be confirmed with a 3-hour 100g oral glucose tolerance test. After administration of the 100g glucose challenge, at least two of the following are required for diagnosis: (1) fasting glucose > 95 mg/dL, (2) one-hour glucose >180 mg/dL, (3) two hour glucose >155 mg/dL, and (4) three hour glucose > 140 mg/dL. Choice A - To diagnose gestational diabetes, a positive 1-hour 50g oral glucose challenge must be followed up by a three- hour 100g oral glucose challenge. The diagnosis is only confirmed after both challenges are completed and the thresholds are met. Choice C - Following the diagnosis of gestational diabetes, the first step is strict glycemic control (fasting glucose).
NEW QUESTION 90
......
Below is the North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination Format
- Length of Examination: 6 hours
- Format: Multiple choices, multiple answers
- Language: English
- Number of questions: 250
- Passing score: Scaled 75
NAPLEX Dumps and Exam Test Engine: https://www.exams-boost.com/NAPLEX-valid-materials.html