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ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) certification exam is one of the most highly respected and sought-after credentials in the field of information technology. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is designed to recognize IT professionals who are experts in identifying and managing risks related to information systems. The CRISC certification is awarded by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA), a professional association that provides guidance and certifications to IT professionals around the world.
The CRISC certification exam is designed for professionals who are responsible for managing risks related to information systems and security. CRISC exam covers four domains, including risk identification, assessment, response, and monitoring. These domains are designed to test the candidate's knowledge and skills in the field of risk management, as well as their ability to develop and implement effective risk management strategies.
NEW QUESTION # 225
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs?
- A. Ensuring the control is proportional to the risk
- B. Ensuring availability of resources for log analysis
- C. Implementing log analysis tools to automate controls
- D. Building correlations between logs collected from different sources
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 226
An organization has an internal control that requires all access for employees be removed within 15 days of their termination date. Which of the following should the risk practitioner use to monitor adherence to the 15-day threshold?
- A. Key risk indicator (KRI)
- B. Key performance indicator (KPI)
- C. Service level agreement (SLA)
- D. Operation level agreement (OLA)
Answer: B
Explanation:
A key performance indicator (KPI) is a metric that measures the achievement of a specific goal or objective. A KPI for the internal control that requires all access for employees be removed within 15 days of their termination date could be the percentage of employees whose access was removed within the specified time frame. This KPI would help the risk practitioner to monitor the compliance and effectiveness of the control and identify any deviations or issues.
References
*Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) - ISACA
*How to Improve Risk Awareness in the Workplace [+ Template] - AlertMedia
*[SITXWHS
NEW QUESTION # 227
Which of the following is the MOST important information to cover a business continuity awareness Ira nine, program for all employees of the organization?
- A. Critical asset inventory
- B. Recovery time objectives (RTOs)
- C. Communication plan
- D. Segregation of duties
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 228
Which of the following BEST represents a critical threshold value for a key control indicator (KCI)?
- A. A value that represents the intended control state
- B. Thresholds benchmarked to peer organizations
- C. The value at which control effectiveness would fail
- D. A typical operational value
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 229
The MOST important objective of information security controls is to:
- A. Identify threats and vulnerability
- B. Provide measurable risk reduction
- C. Enforce strong security solutions
- D. Ensure alignment with industry standards
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most important objective of information security controls is to provide measurable risk reduction.
Information security controls are the policies, procedures, techniques, or technologies that are implemented to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information assets. The main purpose of information security controls is to reduce the risk of unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction of information assets, and to ensure that the information assets support the enterprise's objectives and performance. Information security controls should be measurable, meaning that they should have clear and quantifiable criteria for evaluating their effectiveness and efficiency in reducing the risk exposure to an acceptable level. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1, page 1151
NEW QUESTION # 230
In an organization dependent on data analytics to drive decision-making, which of the following would BEST help to minimize the risk associated with inaccurate data?
- A. Benchmarking to industry best practice
- B. Evaluating each of the data sources for vulnerabilities
- C. Periodically reviewing big data strategies
- D. Establishing an intellectual property agreement
Answer: C
Explanation:
Periodically reviewing big data strategies is the best option to minimize the risk of inaccurate data, because it allows the organization to assess the quality, validity, and reliability of the data sources and the analytics methods. It also enables the organization to identify and address any gaps, errors, or inconsistencies in the data and the results. By reviewing the big data strategies, the organization can ensure that the data analytics are aligned with the business objectives and the risk appetite.
Establishing an intellectual property agreement is not relevant to the risk of inaccurate data, as it is a legal measure to protect the ownership and use of the data, not its quality or accuracy.
Evaluating each of the data sources for vulnerabilities is a good practice, but it is not sufficient to minimize the risk of inaccurate data, as it only focuses on the security aspect of the data, not the validity or reliability of the data itself.
Benchmarking to industry best practice is a useful way to compare the performance and results of the data analytics, but it does not directly address the risk of inaccurate data, as it assumes that the data and the methods are already valid and reliable. References = Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, ISACA, 2019, page
62-63.
NEW QUESTION # 231
Who should have the authority to approve an exception to a control?
- A. information security manager
- B. Risk owner
- C. Control owner
- D. Risk manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
The control owner is the person who has the authority to approve an exception to a control. A control is a
policy, procedure, or technical measure that is implemented to prevent or mitigate a risk. A control owner is
responsible for the design, implementation, operation, and maintenance of the control, as well as for
monitoring and reporting its performance and effectiveness. A control owner is also accountable for the
approval of any changes or exceptions to the control, based on the risk assessment and business justification.
An information security manager, a risk owner, and a risk manager are not the best choices, as they do not
have the same level of authority, responsibility, and knowledge as the control owner in relation to the
control. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 35.
NEW QUESTION # 232
The risk associated with data loss from a website which contains sensitive customer information is BEST owned by:
- A. the compliance manager
- B. the third-party website manager
- C. the business process owner
- D. IT security
Answer: C
Explanation:
The risk associated with data loss from a website which contains sensitive customer information is best owned by the business process owner, as they are ultimately responsible for the business objectives and outcomes that depend on the website. The business process owner should ensure that the website is adequately protected and that the customer data is handled in compliance with the relevant laws and regulations. The third-party website manager, IT security, and the compliance manager are all involved in managing the risk, but they are not the owners. The third-party website manager is responsible for the technical aspects of the website, such as hosting, maintenance, and performance. IT security is responsible for implementing and monitoring the security controls and policies for the website. The compliance manager is responsible for ensuring that the website meets the regulatory and contractual requirements. However, none of these roles have the authority or accountability to own the risk, as they are not directly affected by the business impact of the data loss. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 47.
NEW QUESTION # 233
You are the project manager of the PFO project. You are working with your project team members and two subject matter experts to assess the identified risk events in the project. Which of the following approaches is the best to assess the risk events in the project?
- A. Root cause analysis
- B. Interviews or meetings
- C. Determination of the true cost of the risk event
- D. Probability and Impact Matrix
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Risk probability and assessment is completed through interviews and meetings with the participants that are most familiar with the risk events, the project work, or have other information that can help determine the affect of the risk.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The true cost of the risk event is not a qualitative risk assessment approach. It is often done during the quantitative risk analysis process.
C: The probability and impact matrix is a tool and technique to prioritize the risk events, but it's not the best answer for assessing risk events within the project.
D: Root cause analysis is a risk identification technique, not a qualitative assessment tool.
NEW QUESTION # 234
Which of The following is the MOST comprehensive input to the risk assessment process specific to the
effects of system downtime?
- A. Business continuity plan (BCP) testing results
- B. Recovery lime objective (RTO)
- C. Business impact analysis (BIA)
- D. results Recovery point objective (RPO)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most comprehensive input to the risk assessment process specific to the effects of system downtime is the
business impact analysis (BIA). The BIA is a process of analyzing the potential impacts of disruptive events
on the business processes, functions, and resources. The BIA identifies the criticality, dependencies, recovery
priorities, and recovery objectives of the business processes, and quantifies the financial and non-financial
impacts of system downtime. The BIA provides valuable information for the risk assessment process, as it
helps to evaluate the likelihood and impact of the risks, and to determine the appropriate risk responses.
Business continuity plan (BCP) testing results, recovery time objective (RTO), and recovery point objective
(RPO) are not as comprehensive as the BIA, as they are derived from the BIA and focus on specific aspects of
the business continuity and recovery strategies. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA,
2015, page 130.
NEW QUESTION # 235
Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?
- A. Process owners
- B. Senior management
- C. IT management
- D. Internal audit
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 236
Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent the loss of highly sensitive data when disposing of storage
media?
- A. Degaussing
- B. Data anonymization
- C. Data deletion
- D. Physical destruction
Answer: D
Explanation:
When disposing of storage media, the best way to prevent the loss of highly sensitive data is physical
destruction. Here's why:
Physical Destruction:
Physical destruction involves destroying the storage media so that the data it contains cannot be recovered or
reconstructed.
Methods include shredding, crushing, incinerating, or using industrial-grade degaussers that destroy the
magnetic fields on the media.
Comparison with Other Methods:
Degaussing:This method erases data by disrupting the magnetic fields of the storage media. While effective
for some types of media, it may not work on all (e.g., solid-state drives) and does not provide a visual
confirmation that the data is irrecoverable.
Data Anonymization:This process involves altering data to prevent identification of individuals, but it does
not destroy the data itself and is not applicable for disposing of storage media.
Data Deletion:Simply deleting data does not remove it permanently. Deleted data can often be recovered
using specialized software unless it is overwritten multiple times, which is still less reliable than physical
destruction.
Security Best Practices:
Physical destruction is considered the most secure method because it ensures that the media is rendered
completely unusable and the data cannot be retrieved by any means.
This method is recommended by various standards and frameworks, including NIST Special Publication 800-
88 Guidelines for Media Sanitization.
References:
The CRISC Review Manual highlights the importance of physical destruction for securely disposing of
sensitive data (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 4: Information Technology and Security, Section 4.5.2 Data
Loss Prevention).
NEW QUESTION # 237
The PRIMARY purpose of IT control status reporting is to:
- A. facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states.
- B. benchmark IT controls with Industry standards.
- C. ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.
- D. assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 238
A new international data privacy regulation requires personal data to be disposed after the specified retention period, which is different from the local regulatory requirement. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to resolve the disparity?
- A. Adopt the local standard.
- B. Adopt the standard determined by legal counsel.
- C. Adopt the international standard.
- D. Adopt the least stringent standard determined by the risk committee.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 239
Which of the following would MOST effectively enable a business operations manager to identify events exceeding risk thresholds?
- A. Transaction logging
- B. A control self-assessment
- C. Continuous monitoring
- D. Benchmarking against peers
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 240
Marie has identified a risk event in her project that needs a mitigation response. Her response actually creates a new risk event that must now be analyzed and planned for. What term is given to this newly created risk event?
- A. Infinitive risk
- B. Populated risk
- C. Residual risk
- D. Secondary risk
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation
Explanation:
Secondary risks are the risks that come about as a result of implementing a risk response. This new risk event must be recorded, analyzed, and planned for management.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A residual risk event is similar to a secondary risk, but is often small in probability and impact, so it may just be accepted.
C: Infinitive risk is not a valid project management term.
D: Populated risk event is not a valid project management term.
NEW QUESTION # 241
After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is fcr the risk manager to
- A. recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.
- B. inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.
- C. inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.
- D. inform the development team of the concerns and together formulate risk reduction measures.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 242
Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to
include in a report to senior management?
- A. Changes in control ownership
- B. An increase in residual risk
- C. Changes in control design
- D. A decrease in the number of key controls
Answer: B
Explanation:
An IT risk and control self-assessment (RCSA) is a process that helps organizations identify and evaluate
operational risks and assess the effectiveness of their control measures12. It is a structured approach that
involves identifying, assessing, mitigating, and monitoring risks across all levels of an organization12.
A report to senior management is a document that summarizes and communicates the results and findings of
the RCSA, and provides recommendations and action plans for improving the risk management and control
processes34.
The most important aspect of an IT risk and control self-assessment to include in a report to senior
management is an increase in residual risk, which is the risk remaining after risk treatment, and represents the
exposure or potential impact of the risk on the organization's objectives56.
An increase in residual risk is the most important aspect because it indicates the level of risk that the
organization is willing to accept or tolerate, and the gap between the current and desired risk profile56.
An increase in residual risk is also the most important aspect because it requires the attention and decision of
the senior management, who are responsible for defining the organization's risk appetite, strategy, and
criteria, and for ensuring that the residual risk is within the acceptable range56.
The other options are not the most important aspects, but rather possible components or outcomes of an IT
risk and control self-assessment that may support or complement the report to senior management. For
example:
Changes in control design are components of an IT risk and control self-assessment that involve modifying or
updating the control measures to address the changes in the risk environment or the organization's
objectives56. However, changes in control design are not the most importantaspect because they do not
measure or reflect the residual risk, which is the ultimate goal of the risk treatment56.
A decrease in the number of key controls is an outcome of an IT risk and control self-assessment that
indicates the improvement or optimization of the control processes, and the reduction of the complexity or
redundancy of the control measures56. However, a decrease in the number of key controls is not the most
important aspect because it does not indicate or imply the residual risk, which may depend on other factors
such as the effectiveness or efficiency of the controls56.
Changes in control ownership are components of an IT risk and control self-assessment that involve assigning
or reassigning the responsibility and accountability for the control processes to the appropriate individuals or
groups within the organization56. However,changes in control ownership are not the most important aspect
because they do not affect or determine the residual risk, which is independent of the control
owners56. References =
1: Risk and control self-assessment - KPMG Global1
2: Control Self Assessments - PwC2
3: How-To Guide: Implementing Risk Control Self-Assessment Steps4
4: RISK MANAGEMENT SELF-ASSESSMENT TEMPLATE - Smartsheet5
5: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
6: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
NEW QUESTION # 243
John is the project manager of the HGH Project for her company. He and his project team have agreed that if the vendor is late by more than ten days they will cancel the order and hire the NBG Company to fulfill the order. The NBG Company can guarantee orders within three days, but the costs of their products are significantly more expensive than the current vendor. What type of response does John adopt here?
- A. Contingent response strategy
- B. Risk mitigation
- C. Risk avoidance
- D. Expert judgment
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
As in this case John and his team mates have pre-planned the alternative if the vendor would late in placing the order. Therefore, it is contingent response strategy.
Contingent response strategy, also known as contingency planning, involves adopting alternatives to deal with the risks in case of their occurrence. Unlike the mitigation planning in which mitigation looks to reduce the probability of the risk and its impact, contingency planning doesn't necessarily attempt to reduce the probability of a risk event or its impacts. Contingency comes into action when the risk event actually occurs.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Risk avoidance is the method which involves creating solutions that ensure a specific risk in not realized.
C: Risk mitigation attempts to eliminate or significantly decrease the level of risk present. Here no alternatives are pre-planned.
D: Expert judgment is utilized in developing risk responses, including feedback and guidance from risk management experts and those internal to the project qualified to provide assistance in this process.
NEW QUESTION # 244
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